Is it my imagination or has it become far more common for people saying Kaddish to start with the words Yisgadeil v’yiskadeish (as opposed to Yisgadal v’yiskadash)?
The difference hinges on whether the words are Hebrew or Aramaic. Those who say "Yisgadeil v’yiskadeish" are speaking Hebrew. Those who say Yisgadal v’yiskadash are speaking Aramaic.
The puzzle: Kaddish is written in Aramaic. So why would someone take it upon his (or her) self to articulate the first two words as if they were Hebrew?
An answer: The first word (Yisgadal) actually is Hebrew (at least in origin). It is based on a root, GDL, that only appears in Hebrew. There is no Aramaic cognate for GDL. Moreover, the words Yisgadal v’yiskadash appear to be a reference to a Hebrew bible verse (Ezekiel 38:23). So though KDSh is both a Hebrew and Aramaic root, the words Yisgadeil v’yiskadeish" are given a Hebrew pronunciation out of deference to the verse and the fact that Yisgadeil seems to be Hebrew.
The problem: Who says GDL is exclusively Hebrew? Languages borrow words from each other all the time. Why isn't it possible that the author of Kaddish spoke a dialect that recognized GDL as kosher Aramaic? And if it is a loan word, why insist on the Hebrew pronunciation. English is full of loan words that kept their foreign spelling, but not their foreign pronunciation. Perhaps that's what happened here? And if its not a loan word, but merely a reference to a Hebrew verse, there still doesn't seem to be any reason to use the Hebrew pronunciation When you're saying Kaddish you're "speaking" Aramaic, so why not use Aramaic vocalizations as well? (Those of you who'd rather hear from a Rabbi can rely on the Tur and the Bet YosefVilna Gaon who agreed that the opening phrase should not be hebraicized.)
The trend: So, as I asked at the top, is it my imagination of is the Hebrew pronunciation catching on, especially among the self-consciously frum? It seems to me that more and more people have started saying Yisgadeil v’yiskadeish and most seem to be newly minted members of the Yeshivish sect. If my observations are accurate, here's what must have happened: A decade or two ago, ignorant and insecure right-wingers became aware of the discredited, or minority tradition to say Yisgadeil v’yiskadeish. Noting that YU, Young Israel and other so-called modern types say Yisgadal v’yiskadash, they decided that the discredited, or minority tradition must be more frum. Why else would it have fallen into disuse among the modern people?
This is classic hyper-frum reasoning, and explains how many stupid, unnecessary or incorrect customs including upshurin, kaporos, avoiding gbroks, and abandoning the sukka on Shmini Atzeres became widespread.
Ignorant and insecure people took note of what "modern" people did and embraced the opposite on the grounds that "of course the other way must be holier."
Before you start screaming: I know lots of holy and brilliant people keep the customs I've denounced. So what? Likely, they inherited the practices from their insecure and ignorant ancestors. Once your family does something you do it, no questions asked. That's not what is being criticized here.
I also know that there are quote unquote good reasons for some of these customs, but again so what?. These reasons were either (1) invented after the customs became widespread, or (2) they were minority opinions embraced by a particular community. How did they catch on and become mainstream? Simple. Insecure and ignorant people took the customs on as they tried to "grow" or "improve themselves" Unfortunately, insecure and ignorant people often "grow and improve" by picking up token superficial practices, or simply by rejecting the practices of communities they deem less holy.
Search for more information about how the world works at4torah.com
The difference hinges on whether the words are Hebrew or Aramaic. Those who say "Yisgadeil v’yiskadeish" are speaking Hebrew. Those who say Yisgadal v’yiskadash are speaking Aramaic.
The puzzle: Kaddish is written in Aramaic. So why would someone take it upon his (or her) self to articulate the first two words as if they were Hebrew?
An answer: The first word (Yisgadal) actually is Hebrew (at least in origin). It is based on a root, GDL, that only appears in Hebrew. There is no Aramaic cognate for GDL. Moreover, the words Yisgadal v’yiskadash appear to be a reference to a Hebrew bible verse (Ezekiel 38:23). So though KDSh is both a Hebrew and Aramaic root, the words Yisgadeil v’yiskadeish" are given a Hebrew pronunciation out of deference to the verse and the fact that Yisgadeil seems to be Hebrew.
The problem: Who says GDL is exclusively Hebrew? Languages borrow words from each other all the time. Why isn't it possible that the author of Kaddish spoke a dialect that recognized GDL as kosher Aramaic? And if it is a loan word, why insist on the Hebrew pronunciation. English is full of loan words that kept their foreign spelling, but not their foreign pronunciation. Perhaps that's what happened here? And if its not a loan word, but merely a reference to a Hebrew verse, there still doesn't seem to be any reason to use the Hebrew pronunciation When you're saying Kaddish you're "speaking" Aramaic, so why not use Aramaic vocalizations as well? (Those of you who'd rather hear from a Rabbi can rely on the Tur and the Bet Yosef
The trend: So, as I asked at the top, is it my imagination of is the Hebrew pronunciation catching on, especially among the self-consciously frum? It seems to me that more and more people have started saying Yisgadeil v’yiskadeish and most seem to be newly minted members of the Yeshivish sect. If my observations are accurate, here's what must have happened: A decade or two ago, ignorant and insecure right-wingers became aware of the discredited, or minority tradition to say Yisgadeil v’yiskadeish. Noting that YU, Young Israel and other so-called modern types say Yisgadal v’yiskadash, they decided that the discredited, or minority tradition must be more frum. Why else would it have fallen into disuse among the modern people?
This is classic hyper-frum reasoning, and explains how many stupid, unnecessary or incorrect customs including upshurin, kaporos, avoiding gbroks, and abandoning the sukka on Shmini Atzeres became widespread.
Ignorant and insecure people took note of what "modern" people did and embraced the opposite on the grounds that "of course the other way must be holier."
Before you start screaming: I know lots of holy and brilliant people keep the customs I've denounced. So what? Likely, they inherited the practices from their insecure and ignorant ancestors. Once your family does something you do it, no questions asked. That's not what is being criticized here.
I also know that there are quote unquote good reasons for some of these customs, but again so what?. These reasons were either (1) invented after the customs became widespread, or (2) they were minority opinions embraced by a particular community. How did they catch on and become mainstream? Simple. Insecure and ignorant people took the customs on as they tried to "grow" or "improve themselves" Unfortunately, insecure and ignorant people often "grow and improve" by picking up token superficial practices, or simply by rejecting the practices of communities they deem less holy.
Search for more information about how the world works at4torah.com
